Some Important Govt. Programme And Policies and Committees

Some Important Govt. Programme And Policies and Committees

(1) Prerna:- The ‘janasankhya sthirata kosh (national population

stabilization fund) has to promote & under take activities aimed at achieving population stabilization at a level consistent with the needs of sustainable economic growth. Social development and environment protection by 2045

• Prerna is a responsible for parenthood strategy. It is monetary incentive strategy aimed at pushing up the age of marriage of girls and delay the birth of the first child.

(2) National Rural Health Mission:-Lunched in April 2005 the mission seeks to provide universal access to equitable, affordable and quality health care which is accountable and at the same time responsible to the needs of the people.

• It also aims to achieve the goals set out under the national policy and the millennium development goals during the mission period.

(3) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna:-Launched by ministry of labour & employment, govt of India to provide health insurance coverage for BPL families.

• Beneficiaries are entitled to hospitalization coverage up to Rs 30,000 for most of the disease that require hospitalization.

(4) National Food Security Mission:-Sponsored scheme launched in august 2007.

• Objective is to increased production and productivity of wheat, rice and pulses.

(5) 15 Point Programme:-In Oct 2009 govt decided to include 3 more schemes in the Prime minister’s new 15 point programme for the welfare of minorities.

Those are: -

• National rural drinking water programme.

• Urban infrastructure developed scheme for small and medium town.

• Urban infrastructure and governance scheme.

(6) Bharat Nirman Yojna:- It is a time bound business plan for action in rural in infrastructure .Under Bharat nirman , action was proposed in the areas of:-

I. Irrigation.

II. Rural housing.

III. Rural water supply.

IV. Rural electrification.

V. Rural telecommunication connectivity.

(7) National Mission On Education:-It is a mission in which education is provide through information and communication technology. “SAKSHAT” one stop education portal was launched on Oct 30 2006 by the president of India.

• Head of National knowledge commission:-Sam Pitroda.

(8)Right To Education Act 2009:- Article 21-(A), as inserted by the constitution (86th Amendment Act) 2002, provides for free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years as a fundamental rights. Consequently the parliament has enacted this in April 2009.

Salient features:-

(a) Free and compulsory education 6 to 14 age group.

(b) Will apply to all India except J&K.

(c) Provide for 25% reservation for economically disadvantaged communities in admission in private school.

(d) A child who completes elementary education (up to class 8) shall be awarded a certificate.

(9) Female Literacy:-It is a scheme to provide education & related facilities to ST Students launched by ministry of trial affairs in dec 11, 2009.

(10) Anil Kalkaska Committee on reforms in IITS:-it will suggest reforms to make these elite institutions a global brand.

(11) Yashpal Committee Report:- It was set up in 2008 for higher education and research.

• It has suggested the scrapping of all higher education regulatory /monitoring bodies and creation of a super regulation.

• It also recommended that the deemed university status be abandoned and that all deserving universities be either converted into full fledged universities or scrapped.

(12) National Rural Livelihood Mission:-Ministry of rural development and panchyati raj proposed to restructure the existing swarnjayanti gram swarojgar yojna into rural livelihood mission to have a focused approach to rural poverty eradication in a time bound manner.

• Objective is to reduce poverty among rural BPL by promoting diversified and gainful self employment and wage employment opportunities which would lead to an appreciable increase in sustainable basis.

(13) NREGA Renamed After Mahatma Gandhi:- On Oct 2, 2009.

(14) Chandra Sheker Panel:- on the recomandation of a committee headed by cabinet secretary K.M Chander shaker. Centre had increased the pension for retired service man.

(15) Rajiv Awas Yojna:-Ministry of housing and urban poverty alleviation had launched the housing project called the Rajiv awas yojna for slum dwellers and the urban poor.

• Aimed at making India slum free in the next five years.

(16) Government Gave 50% Women’s Quota: - For women in urban local bodies from 33 % to 50 % by the 108th const. amendment act.

(17) B.K Chaturvedi panel to resolve the inter ministrial issues to speed up the ambitious national highways development project taken up by the road transport and highway ministry.

(18) Librahan Commission:- It was set up in dec 16 ,1992 by the Narashima Rao govt. to probe the demolition of Babri Mosque. The commission was initially asked to give a report in three months, however it could do so only after over 16 years that saw 39 sitting and 48 extensions, finally on June 30 2009 it gave the report.

(19) S.D. Tendulkar Committee:-It is to estimate poverty in the country. It’s said that about 38% of the country’s population are living below poverty line. This figure is 10% higher than the present poverty estimate of 28.5 % by the planning commission.

(20) Moily Panel:- For administrative reform commission it is the 2^nd administrative reform commission.

(21) Unique Identification Authority:- Chairman of UID is Nandan Nilekani. He revealed that the first set of 16 digit unique identification number for citizen of the country will roll out by the end of 2010.

• The UIAI is a part of the planning mission of India.

• AADHAR:-UIDAI now new name AADHAR and also a logo.

• AADHAR or foundation through through which the citizen can claim his/her rights and establishment when assumed of equal opportunities as symbolized by the logo which has the halo of the sun in the imprint of a thumbs.

(22) M.S swami Nathan Panel:- It’s recommendation is on coasted management zone.

(23) G.T Nanavati-Akshay Mehta judical commission:- Probing the Godhra train carnage and post Godhra riots.

(24) Justice B.N Srikrishna is the head of the committee on Telangana issue. The committee is requested to submit its report by dec 31, 2010.

(25) Census 2011:-15th national census of India. President being first person to share her details. First census was conducted in 1872.

(26) D.P Wadhawa Committee On PDS:-Established by the Supreme Court to give recommendation on the reform of public distribution system.

(27) Rajiv Gandhi Grammeen LPG Vitarak Yojna:- Union petroleum and natural gas ministry inaugurated this scheme for providing liquefied petroleum gas to the rural house hold at Lachhman ghar in sikar district of Rajasthan .

• Under the scheme it is proposed to increase the number of connection to 16 crores with coverage of 75% of population by 2015.

(28) Punchhi Commission:-Commission on centre state relation. It was constituted in April 2007. It was ask to make recommendation to help address the emerging challenges faced by the nation regarding centre state relation.

Before this in mid 1980’s the SARKARI commission had undertaken a comprehensive review of the center state relation.

(29) National Integration Council:-The Govt. has reconstituted it which will be chaired by prime minister. Set up in the early 60’s by Nehru.

(30) E.R Rammohan Committee on Dantewada Massacre of CRPF personal.

(31) ICDS:-Integrated child development service launched on 2nd Oct 1975.

• It is the world largest programme for early child hood.

• The objective is to improve the nutritional and health status of children in the age group of 0-6 years.

(33) Green India Mission:- Ministry of environment and forests and the defense research and development organization have launched the mission.

• The aim is to bring a million heacter of high altitude, cold desert

ecosystem under cultivation by 2020.

(34) Pradhan Mantra Adarsh Gram Yojna:- It was launched in Rajasthan Sriganga nagar district.

• Aim at integrated development of 1,000 villages where a majority of the population belongs to the schedule caste.

• It is a replica of U.P’s Ambedkar village scheme.

(35) Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission:- Objective -Generation of 20000 mw of solar energy in three phases by 2022.

• Under this govt. aims to add at least 1000 mw solar power by the end of 2013.

• Power Finance Corporation and the rural electrification corporation had agreed to provide financial assistance.

(36) Certified command of state centre force in chattisgrah, orissa,Jharkhand, Bengal was mooted to counter naxal problem. Under this a IG rank officer or a retired major general on board should be headed the certified command. In this:-

• Additional helicopters should be provided.

• 400 new police stations should be opened.

• 34 new battalions should be constituted.

(37) S. Irani committee:- Rajasthan Govt appointed this committee regarding the Issue of providing reservation to Gujjars.

(38) Pradhan committee:-

• Investigate Nov 26 2008 terror attack.

(39) Muzzafar Jan Commission:-

This committee had probed the gang rape of 17 years old Asiya and pregnant neelofar in shopiaon (J&K).

(40) Kasturi Rangan Committee:- Council of scientific and industrial research (CSIR) has set up this committee. To see the capability of the national aerospace laboratory (NAL) to build civil aircraft.

(41) Goverdhan Mehta Committee:-To review the procedure of the intergovernmental panel on clime change.

deserts around the world

Africa

       Algerian Desert – part of the Sahara located in Algeria

       Blue Desert – a desert in Egypt

       Kalahari Desert – a desert covering much of Botswana and parts of Namibia and South Africa

       Karoo – a semi-desert region in South Africa

       Libyan Desert – part of the Sahara located in Libya

       Namib Desert – a desert in present day Namibia

       Nubian Desert – a desert in present day Sudan

       Owami Desert – a desert in Nigeria

       Sahara Desert – the world's largest hot desert covering most of Northern Africa

       White Desert – a desert in Egypt

Asia

       Akshi Desert – a desert in India

       Badain Jaran – a desert located in China

       Cholistan – a desert in Pakistan

       Gobi – a desert in Mongolia and China

       Indus Valley Desert – a desert located in Pakistan

       Kara Kum – a large Central Asian desert

       Kharan desert – a desert located in Pakistan

       Kyzyl Kum – a desert in Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan

       Lop Desert – a desert in China

       Ordos – a desert in northern China

       Rub' al Khali – a desert located in Saudi Arabia

       Taklamakan – a desert located in China

       Thal Desert – a desert in Pakistan

       Thar Desert – a desert in Pakistan and India

       Arabian Desert – a vast desert complex on the Arabian Peninsula comprising the Al-Dahna Desert, Empty Quarter, Nefud Desertand other deserts

       Dasht-e Kavir – a desert in central Iran

       Dasht-e Lut – a large salt desert in southeastern Iran

       Judean Desert – a desert in eastern Israel and the West Bank

       Maranjab Desert – a desert in central Iran

       Negev – a desert located in southern Israel

       Ramlat al-Sab`atayn – a sandy desert in central & northeastern Yemen, part of the Empty Quarter

       Sinai Desert – a desert located on the Sinai Peninsula in Egypt

       Wahiba Sands – a desert in Oman

Australia

Main article: Deserts of Australia

       Central Desert – a central Australian desert

       Gibson Desert – a central Australian desert

       Great Sandy Desert – a northwestern Australian desert

       Great Victoria Desert – the biggest desert in Australia

       Little Sandy Desert – a western Australian desert

       Simpson Desert – a central Australian desert

       Strzelecki Desert – a south-central Australian desert

       Tanami Desert – a northern Australian desert

Europe  

             Accona Desert – a semi-desert in central Italy

             Aleshkovskie peski – a sandy desert in Ukraine

             Bardenas Reales – a semi-desert in Navarre, Spain (455 km²)

             Błędowska Desert – a desert located in Lesser Poland Voivodeship, Poland (32 km²)

             Deliblatska Peščara – a desert located in Vojvodina, Serbia (300 km²)

             Highlands of Iceland – the interior plateau of Iceland; not a desert by climate, but effectively one because precipitation penetrates the volcanic soil so quickly that it is unavailable to plants

             Monegros Desert – a semi-desert in Aragón, Spain

             Oleshky Sands – a desert located in Ukraine near Askania-Nova biosphere reserve (15 km in diameter)

             Oltenian Sahara – a desert spanning approximately 80,000 hectares or 800 km² in the Romanian historical province of Oltenia[1]

                                                         Piscinas – a desert located in southwest Sardinia, Italy (5 km²)

                                                         Ryn Desert – a desert in western Kazakhstan and southeastern Russia, north of the Caspian Sea and southeast of the Volga Upland. It is the largest sandy desert in Europe

                                                         Stranja Sahara - a desert in southeastern Bulgaria near the city of Burgas. It is about 80,000 hectares, sometimes estimated to about 850 km². It is near the borders of Turkey and northwestern Greece[2]

                                                         Tabernas Desert – a desert in Almería, Spain (280 km²)

             Pumas Desert - a desert in Spain (province)

North America

List of North American deserts

          Central Valley of California (which is divided into the Sacramento Valley in the north, and the San Joaquin Valley in the south) – this area has largely been transformed, due to irrigation canals, to an agricultural area. It is technically a semi-arid climate

          Chihuahuan Desert

          Colorado Desert

          Mojave Desert

          Sonoran Desert

]South America

             Atacama – a desert in Chile and Peru, the driest place on Earth

             La Guajira Desert – a desert in northern Colombia and Venezuela

             Monte Desert – in Argentina, a smaller desert above the Patagonian Desert

             Patagonian Desert – the largest desert in the Americas, located in Argentina and Chile

             Sechura Desert – a desert located south of the Piura Region of Peru

Polar Regions

          Antarctica Desert – the largest desert in the world

          Arctic Desert – the second largest desert in the world

          North American Arctic – a large tundra in North America

          Russian Arctic – a large tundra in Russia

Oceania

          Rangipo Desert – a barren desert-like plateau (with 1.5-2.5 m/yr rainfall) on the North Island Volcanic Plateau in New Zealand

Fiscal Policy

What is Fiscal Policy:

It is the use of government expenditure and revenue collection that directly and indirectly influences the economy of the nation. The following are the features of the Fiscal Policy.,

1. It can be contrasted with the other main types of economic policy, monetary policy, which attempts to stabilize the economy by controlling interest rates and supply of money.

2. The Two main instruments used in Fiscal Policy is i) Government spending and ii) Taxation.

3. It refers to the over all effect if the budget outcome on economic activity. In regards with this following are the three stances of Fiscal Policy.,

 








Fiscal system deals not only with the quantity but the quality of public finance as well. In other words, not merely how much is raised and spent but how has it been raised in the form of
i) Taxes -- Within Direct and Indirect Taxes
ii) Disinvestment proceeds.
iii) Borrowing from market and RBI

UPSC Civils Preliminary General Studies Paper - II

UPSC Civils Preliminary General Studies Paper - II

  

UPSC Civils Preliminary General Studies Paper II 2011 Solutions

SET - B

(Exam Held On : 12-06-2011)

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
Instructions
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET
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3. You have to enter your Roll number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks
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9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE EXCEPT FOR QUESTIONS FROM 73 TO 80,  WHICH DO NOT CARRY ANY PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER.
(i) There are four alternative for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will
be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.



                                              PAPER-II

Directions for the following 4 (four) items :

    Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Passage

        A country under foreign domination seeks escape from the present in dreams of a vanished age, and finds consolation in visions of past greatness. That is a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us indulge. An equally questionable practice for us in India is to imagine that we are still spiritually great though we have come down in the world in other respects. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot be founded on lack of freedom and opportunity, or on starvation and misery. Many western writers have encouraged that notion that Indians are other-worldly. I suppose the poor and unfortunate in every country become to some extent other-worldly, unless they become revolutionaries, for this world is evidently not meant for them. So also subject peoples.
        As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely engrossed in, or satisfied with, the external objective world. He seeks also some inner meaning, some psychological and physical satisfactions. So also with peoples and civilizations as they mature and grow adult. Every civilization and every people exhibit these parallel streams of an external life and an internal life. Where they meet or keep close to each other, there is an equilibrium and stability. When they diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the mind and spirit.
1.   The passage mentions that "this world is evidently not meant for them". It refers to people who    (b)
    1.   seek freedom from foreign domination.
    2.   live in starvation and misery.
    3.   become revolutionaries.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)  1 and 2                  (b)  2 only  
    (c)  2 and 3                  (d)  3 only
2.   Consider the following assumptions :    (a)
    1.   A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit.
    2.   Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit.
    3.   Subject peoples may become other-worldly.
    With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
    (a)  1 and 2                
    (b)  2 only
    (c)  2 and 3                
    (d)  3 only
3.   The passage thematically centres on    (a)
    (a)  the state of mind of oppressed people
    (b)  starvation and misery
    (c)  the growth of civilization
    (d)  body, mind and spirit of people in  general
4.       According to the passage, the torture of the mind and spirit is caused        (c)
    (a)  by the impact of foreign domination.
    (b)  by the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation in visions of past greatness.
    (c)  due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life.
    (d)  due to one's inability to be either revolutionary or other-worldly.

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
        Read the passage given below, study the graph that follows and answer the three items given below the figure.
        During a party, a person was exposed to contaminated water. A few days later, he developed fever and loose motions. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. The following graph shows different phases of the person's disease condition as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.

 

5.   Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of the infection ?    (a)
    (a)  A only    (b)  B only
    (c)  B and C
    (d)  No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase
6.   Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection ?    (b)
    (a)  A                            (b)  B
    (c)  C                            (d)  D
7.      Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief ?    (c)
    (a)  C    (b)  D
    (c)  E
    (d)  The curve does not indicate the treatment
8.       There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C ?    (a)
    (a)  24                          (b)  12
    (c)  10                          (d)  8
9.       A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a certain date is as follows : Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being Rs. 50 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days ?        (b)
    (a)  Rs. 4950                    (b)  Rs. 4250
    (c)  Rs. 3600                    (d)  Rs. 650
10.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :

 
 In the figure shown above, OP1 and OP2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other, S is the direction of a beam of light falling on the mirror OP1. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP2 will be
    (a)  Perpendicular to the direction S.    (c)
    (b)  At 45° to the direction S.
    (c)  Opposite and parallel to the direction S.
    (d)  At 60° to the direction S.  
11.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :        (a)

 What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour ?
    (a)  3                            (b)  4
    (c)  5                            (d)  6
12.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :

 
  A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure. What is the length of each side of the square ?        (d)
    (a)  10    (b)  11
    (c)  15
    (d)  Cannot be determined as the given data are insufficient
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
    Read each of the following two passages and answer the items thai follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
        For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need to rethink the role of the State. The early debate among economists about the size of the Government can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. India is too large and complex a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the Government to produce all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption.
        The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver.
        This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State, that is, a Government that does not try to directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need. Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the market so that individual enterprise can flourish and citizens can, for the most part, provide for the needs of one another, and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves, for there will always be individuals, no matter what the system, 'who need support and help. Hence we need a Government that, when it comes to the market, sets effective, incentive-compatible rules and remains on the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the same time, plays an important role in directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition and food.
13.     According to the passage :    (a)
    1.   The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation.
    2.   Need of the hour is to have an enabling Government.
    3.   The Government should engage in maximum interference in market processes.
    4.   There is a need to change the size of the Government.
    Which of the statements given above are correct ?
    (a)  1 and 2 only    (b)  2 and 3 only
    (c)  1 and 4 only    (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4
14.     According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be effected by focussing on    (d)
    (a)  Meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country.
    (b)  Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector.
    (c)  Controlling the distribution of manufactured goods.
    (d)  Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society,
15.     What          constitutes      an enabling  Government ?
    1.   A large bureaucracy.
    2.   Implementation of welfare programmes through representatives.
    3.   Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise.
    4.   Providing resources to those who are underprivileged.
    5.   Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :            (c)
    (a)  1, 2 and 3 only    (b)  4 and 5 only
    (c)  3, 4 and 5 only    (d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
16.     Why is the State unable to deliver "all that is needed" ?
    1.   It does not have sufficient bureaucracy.    (d)
    2.   It does not promote inclusive growth.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (a)  1 only    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2    (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
17.     What is the essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage ?    (d)
    (a)  The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the founding fathers of the nation should be remembered.
    (b)  The Government needs to make available more schools and health services.
    (c)  The Government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society.
    (d)  There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth.

Passage-2
        The concept of 'creative society' refers to a phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential contradictions become articulate and active. This is most evident when oppressed social groups get politically mobilised and demand their rights. The upsurge of the peasants and tribals, the movements for regional autonomy and self-determination, the environmental movements, and the women's movements in the developing -eountries are signs of emergence of creative society in contemporary times. The forms of social movements and their intensity may vary from country to country and place to place within a country. But the very presence of movements for social transformation in various spheres of a society indicates the emergence of a creative society in a country.
18.     What does the author imply by "creative society" ?
    1.   A society where diverse art forms and literary writings seek incentive.
    2.   A society where social inequalities are accepted as the norm.
    3.   A society where a large number of contradictions are recognised.
    4.   A society where the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of their human rights and upliftment.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :        (c)
    (a)  1, 2 and 3              (b)  4 only
    (c)  3 and 4                  (d)  2 and 4
19.     What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements ?
    1.   Aggressiveness and being incendiary.
    2.   Instigation by external forces.
    3.   Quest for social equality and individual freedom.
    4.   Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :        (c)
    (a)  1 and 3 only          (b)  2 and 4 only
    (c)  3 and 4 only          (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4
20.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (c)
    1.   To be a creative society, it is essential to have a variety of social movements.
    2.   To be a creative society, it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
21.     Consider the following three statements :
    1.   Only students can participate in the race.
    2.   Some participants in the race are girls.
    3.   All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching.
    Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements ?    (c)
    (a)  All participants in the race are invited for coaching.
    (b)  All students are invited for coaching.
    (c)  All participants in the race are students.
    (d)  None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
Directions for the following 2 (two) items :
        Each of the following two items consists of four statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below each set of statements :
22.     Examine the following statements :    (a)
    1.   All animals are carnivorous.
    2.   Some animals are not carnivorous.
    3.   Animals are not carnivorous.
    4.   Some animals are carnivorous.
    Codes :
    (a)  1 and 3                  (b)  1 and 2
    (c)  2 and 3                  (d)  3 and 4
23.     Examine the following statements :    (c)
    1.   All trains are run by diesel engine.
    2.   Some trains are run by diesel engine.
    3.   No train is run by diesel engine.
    4.   Some trains are not run by diesel engine.
    Codes :
    (a)  1 and 2                  (b)  2 and 3
    (c)  1 and 3                  (d)  1 and 4
24.     Consider the four age pyramids given below namely A, B, C and D representing four different countries. Which one of them indicates the declining population ?        

     (a)  A                            (b)  B
    (c)  C                            (d)  D
25. The following figure has four curves namely A, B, C and D. Study the figure and answer the item that follows.       

 

Which curve indicates the exponential growth ?
(a)  A                            (b)  B
(c)  C                            (d)  D

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
        The following pie charts show the break-up of disease categories recorded in the patients from two towns, Town A and Town B. Pie charts plot the disease categories as percentage of the total number of patients. Based on these, answer the two items that follow the charts.
                                                      Distribution of diseases in Town - A

 

                                                          Distribution of diseases in Town - B

 

26.     Which of the two towns has a higher number of persons with Diabetes ?        (d)
    (a)  Town A
    (b)  Town B
    (c)  Same in Town A and Town B
    (d)  No inference can be drawn
27.     What can we say about persons with more than one disease from these graphs ?    (b)
    (a)  There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town A.
    (b)  There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B.
    (c)  There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in both Towns A and B.
    (d)  No inference can be drawn.
28.     Consider the following Velocity — Time graph. It shows two trains starting simultaneously on parallel tracks.

   With reference to the above graph, which one of the following statements is not correct ?    (d)
    (a)  Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A.
    (b)  Train B is faster than Train A at all times.
    (c)  Both trains have the same velocity at time t0.
    (d)  Both trains travel the same distance in time t0 units.

Directions for the following 5 (five) items :
        Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
        Now India's children have a right-to receive at least eight years of education, the gnawing question is whether it will remain on paper or become a reality. One hardly needs a reminder that this right is different from the others enshrined in the Constitution, that the beneficiary – a six year old child cannot demand it, nor can she or he fight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is the adult society which must act on behalf of the child. In another peculiarity, where a child's right to education is denied, no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant. This is so because childhood does not last. If a legal battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for girls because our society permits them only a short childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has become law at a point in India's history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced in the form of foeticide. This is "symptomatic of a deeper turmoil" in society which is compounding the traditional obstacles to the education of girls. Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it.
29.    With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (d)

1.   When children are denied education, adult society does not act on behalf of them.
    2.   Right to Education as a law cannot be enforced in the country.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
30.     According to the passage, what could be the traditional obstacles to the education of girls?    (b)
    1.   Inability of parents to fight a legal battle when the Right to Education is denied to their children.
    2.   The traditional way of thinking about girls' role in society.
    3.   The prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
    4.   Improper system of education.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (a)  1 and 2 only          (b)  2, 3 and 4 only
    (c)  1, 3 and 4 only      (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4
31.     On the basis of the passage, consider the following statements :        (d)
    1.   Right to Education is a legal right and not a fundamental right.
    2.   For realising the goal of universal education, the education system in the country must be made identical to that of developed countries.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
32.     Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage ?    (d)
    (a)  India has declared that education is compulsory for its children.
    (b)  Adult society is not keen on implementing the Right to Education.
    (c)  The Right to Education, particularly of a girl child, needs to be safeguarded.
    (d)  The system of education should address the issue of Right to Education.
33.     Which one of the following statements conveys the inference of the passage ?    (d)
    (a)  The society has a tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
    (b)  Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on behalf of children for their Right to Education.
    (c)  The legal fight to get education for children is often protracted and prohibitive.
    (d)  There is no sufficient substitute for education received in childhood.

    Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow :
        A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family. There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three males and two females. The teacher was the wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not a male, neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest person in the family and D is the eldest. B is a male.
34.     How is D related to E ?        (a)
    (a)  Husband                (b)  Son
    (c)  Father                   (d)  Wife
35.     Who are the females in the group ?    (c)
    (a)  C and E                  (b)  C and D
    (c)  E and A                  (d)  D and E
36.     Whose wife is the teacher ?    (d)
    (a)  C                            (b)  D
    (c)  A                            (d)  B
    Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow :
        In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be introduced, 2878 persons took part of which 1652 were males. 1226 persons voted against the proposal of which 796 were males. 1425 persons voted for the proposal. 196 females were undecided.    (b)
37.     How many females voted for the proposal ?
    (a)  430                        (b)  600
    (c)  624                        (d)  640  
38. How many males were undecided ?    (a)
    (a)  31                          (b)  227
    (c)  426                        (d)  581
39.     How many females were not in favour of the proposal ?
    (a)  430                        (b)  496    (a)
    (c)  586                        (d)  1226
40.     In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Mr. X and Mr. Z ?    (c)
    (a)  6                            (b)  7
    (c)  8                            (d)  9
Directions for the following 6 (six) items :
        Read each of the following two passages and answer- the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
        Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods and services; food, clean water, clean air, flood control, soil stabilization, pollination, climate regulation, spiritual fulfilment and aesthetic enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of these benefits either are irreplaceable or the technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For example, potable fresh water can be provided by desalinating sea-water, but only at great cost.
        The rapidly expanding human population has greatly modified the Earth's ecosystems to meet their increased requirements of some of the goods and services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre and fuel. These modifications have contributed substantially to human well being and economic development. The benefits have not been equally distributed. Some people have actually been harmed by these changes. Moreover, short-term increases in some ecosystem goods and services have come at the cost of the long-term degradation of others. For example, efforts to increase the production of food and fibre have decreased the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate flooding and support biodiversity.
41.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements. Expanding human population has an adverse effect on :        (c)
    1.   Spiritual fulfilment
    2.   Aesthetic enjoyment
    3.   Potable fresh water
    4.   Production of food and fibre
    5.   Biodiversity
    Which of the statements given above are correct ?
    (a)  1, 2 and 3 only    (b)  2, 4 and 5 only
    (c)  3 and 5 only    (d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
42. The passage mentions that "some people have actually been harmed by these changes". What does it imply ?        (a)
    1.   The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people:
    2.   Sufficient efforts have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre.
    3. In the short term some people may be harmed, but in the long term everyone will benefit from modifications in the Earth's ecosystems.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)  1 only
    (b)  2
    (c)  1 and 3
    (d)  None of the statements given above
43.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (b)
    1.   It is imperative to modify the Earth's ecosystems for the well being of mankind.
    2.   Technology can never replace all the goods and services provided by ecosystems.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-2
        A moral act must be our own act; must spring from our own will. If we act mechanically, there is no moral content in our act. Such action would be moral, if we think it proper to act like a machine and do so. For, in doing so, we use our discrimination. We should bear in mind the distinction between acting mechanically and acting intentionally. It may be moral of a king to pardon a culprit. But the messenger carrying out the order of pardon plays only a mechanical part in the king's moral act. But if the messenger were to carry out the king's order considering it to be his duty, his action would be a moral one. How can a man understand morality who does not use his own intelligence and power of thought, but lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current ? Sometimes a man defies convention and acts on his own with a view to absolute good.
44.     Which of the following statements best describe/describes the thought of the writer ?    (d)
    1.   A moral act calls for using our discretion.
    2.   Man should react to a situation immediately.
    3.   Man must do his duty.
    4.   Man should be able to defy convention in order to be moral.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  1 and 3
    (c)  2 and 3                  (d)  1 and 4
45.     Which of the following statements is the nearest definition of moral action, according to the writer ?
    (a)  It is a mechanical action based on official orders from superiors.        (b)
    (b)  It is an action based on our sense of discretion.
    (c)  It is a clever action based on the clarity of purpose.
    (d)  It is a religious action based on understanding.
46. The passage contains a statement "lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current." Among the following statements, which is/are nearest in meaning to this ?        (b)
    1.   A person does not use his own reason.
    2.   He is susceptible to influence/pressure.
    3.   He cannot withstand difficulties/ challenges.
    4.   He is like a log of wood.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  1 and 2
    (c)  2 and 3                  (d)  1 and 4
47.     Consider the following distance - time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, B and C running side by side for a 30 km race.

 

    With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements :        (b)
    1.   The race was won by A.
    2.   B was ahead mark of A up to 25 km
    3.   C ran very slowly from the beginning.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  1 and 2 only
    (c)  2 and 3 only          (d)  1, 2 and 3
48. Consider the following figures :    (c)

 
What is the missing number ?
    (a)  7                            (b)  8
    (c)  9                            (d)  10
49.     Study the following figure :    (c)
    A person goes from A to B always moving to the right or downwards along the lines. How many different routes can he adopt ?

 
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (a)  4                            (b)  5
    (c)  6                            (d)  7
50.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :        

What is the total number of triangles in the above grid ?
    (a)  27                          (b)  26
    (c)  23                          (d)  22
51.     A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs. 75, then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are, respectively    (d)
    (a)  15 and 35              (b)  35 and 15
    (c)  30 and 20              (d)  25 and 25
52.     Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps ?
    (a)  25 m 20 cm           (b)  50 m 40 cm    (a)
    (c)  75 m 60 cm           (d)  100 m 80 cm
53.     If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour ?        (b)
    (a)  8 : 5                       (b)  5 : 8
    (c)  4 : 5                       (d)  1 : 2
54. There are 100 students in a particular class. 60% students play cricket, 30O student play football and 10% students play both the games. What is the number of students who play neither cricket nor football ?        (b)
    (a)  25                          (b)  20
    (c)  18                          (d)  15
55.     A village having a population of 4000 requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m. The water of this tank will last for        (b)
    (a)  2 days                    (b)  3 days
    (c)  4 days                    (d)  5 days
Directions for the following 4 (four) items :
        Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
        A species that exerts an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster ochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus. In the absence of sea stars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species.
        A study at the University of Washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
56.     What is the crux of the passage ?    (c)
    (a)  Sea star has a preferred prey.
    (b)  A preferred prey determines the survival of a keystone species.
    (c)  Keystone species ensures species diversity.
    (d)  Sea star is the only keystone species on the Pacific coast of North America.
57.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (a)
    1.   Mussels are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystems.
    2.   The survival of sea stars if generally determined by the abundance of mussels.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
58.     Which of the following is/are implied by the passage ?        (d)
    1.   Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars.
    2.   Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution.
    3.   Sea stars constitute an important component in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 and 2                  (b)  2 only
    (c)  1 and 3                  (d)  3 only
59.     Consider the following assumptions :    (a)
    1.   The food chains/food web in an ecosystem are influenced by keystone species.
    2.   The presence of keystone species is a specific characteristic of aquatic ecosystems.
    3.   If the keystone species is completely removed from an .ecosystem, it will lead to the collapse of the ecosystem.
    With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 and 3 only
    (c)  1 and 3 only          (d)  1, 2 and 3
60.     Consider the following argument :    (b)
    "In order to be a teacher one must graduate from college. All poets are poor. Some Mathematicians are poets. No college graduate is poor."
    Which one of the following is not a valid conclusion regarding the above argument?
    (a)  Some Mathematicians are not teachers.
    (b)  Some   teachers are not Mathematicians.
    (c)  Teachers are not poor,
    (d)  Poets are not teachers.
61.     A student on her first 3 tests received an average score of N points. If shell exceeds her previous average score by 20 points on her fourth test, then what is the average score for the first 4 tests ?    (d)
    (a)  N + 20                    (b)  N + 10
    (c)  N + 4                      (d)  N + 5
62.     In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two-sevenths of the males are married, what fraction of the females is single ?        (d)
    (a)  2/7                        (b)  1/3
    (c)  3/7                        (d)  2/3
63.     The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A's being on the western side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to the front of D's house. B does exactly the same and reaches the front of C's house. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct ?        (c)
    (a)  C and D live on the same street.
    (b)  C's house faces south.
    (c)  The houses of C and D are less than 20 km apart.
    (d)  None of the above
Directions for the following 9 (nine) items :
        The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.
Passage-I
        He walked several miles that day but could not get anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and some water, which he got from cottagers and farmers. As night fell, he slept under a haystack lying in a meadow. He felt frightened at first, for the wind blew awfully over the empty fields. He felt cold and hungry, and was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt before. He, however, soon fell asleep, being much tired with his long walk. When he got up next day, he was feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of bread with a few coins that he had.
64.     When the night fell, he slept    (b)
    (a)  in the open field
    (b)  under a pile of dry grass
    (c)  in a farmer's cottage
    (d)  under a tree
65.     He soon fell asleep because    (a)
    (a)  he was exhausted
    (b)  he was all alone
    (c)  he had not slept for days
    (d)  he was very frightened
66.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (a)
    1.   He was walking through the countryside.
    2.   The cottagers and farmers gave him enough food so that he could sleep at night without feeling hungry.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-II
        I opened the bag and packed the boots in; and then, just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occurred to me. Had I packed my toothbrush ? I don't know how it is, but I never do know whether I've packed my toothbrush.
        My toothbrush is a thing that haunts me when I'm travelling, and makes my life a misery. I dream that I haven't packed it, and wake up in a cold perspiration, and get out of bed and hunt for it. And, in the morning, I pack it before I have used it, and it is always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then I repack and forget it, and have to rush upstairs for it at the last moment and carry it to the railway station, wrapped up in my pocket-handkerchief.
67.     When he was going to close the bag, the idea that occurred to him was        (a)
    (a)  unpleasant            (b)  sad
    (c)  fantastic                (d)  amusing
68.     What makes his life miserable whenever he undertakes travelling ?        (b)
    (a)  Going to railway station
    (b)  Forgetting the toothbrush
    (c)  Packing his bag
    (d)  Bad dreams
69.     His toothbrush is finally        (c)
    (a)  in his bag
    (b)  in his bed
    (c)  in his handkerchief
    (d)  lost

Passage-III
        In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three month old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the litter forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I've only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.
70.     Female polar bears give birth during    (d)
    (a)  spring                    (b)  summer
    (c)  autumn                 (d)  winter
71.     Mother bear        (b)
    (a)  takes sides over cubs
    (b)  lets the cubs fend for themselves
    (c)  feeds only their favourites
    (d)  sees that all cubs get an equal share
72. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :    (d)
    1.   Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non-availability of prey.
    2.   Polar bears always give birth to triplets.
    Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid ?
    (a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
    (c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
    Given below are eight items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find- most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation.
    Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items.
73.     You have been asked to give an explanation for not attending an important official meeting. Your immediate boss who has not informed you about the meeting is now putting pressure on you not to place an allegation against him/her. You would    (a)
    (a)  send a written reply explaining the fact.
    (b)  seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation.
    (c)  admit your fault to save the situation.
    (d)  put the responsibility on the coordinator of the meeting for not informing.
74. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal construction on your vacant plot. He has refused your request to vacate and threatened you of dire consequences in case you do not sell the property at a cheap price to him. You would    (b)
    (a)  sell the property at a cheap price to him.
    (b)  go to the police for necessary action.
    (c)  ask for help from your neighbours.
    (d)  negotiate with the goon to get a higher price.
75.     You have to accomplish a very important task for your Headquarters within the next two days. Suddenly you meet with an accident. Your office insists that you complete the task. You would    (c)
    (a)  ask for an extension of deadline.
    (b)  inform Headquarters of your inability to finish on time.
    (c)  suggest alternate person to Headquarters who may do the needful.
    (d)  stay away till you recover.
76.     You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic medical facilities to the survivors of an earthquake affected area. Despite your best possible effort, people put allegations against you for making money out of the funds given for relief. You would    (a)
    (a)  let an enquiry be set up to look into the matter.
    (b)  ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place.
    (c)  not pay attention to allegations.
    (d)  stop undertaking any initiative till the matter is resolved.
77.     You have been made responsible to hire boats at a short notice to be used for an area under flood. On seeing the price mentioned by the boat owners you found that the lowest price was approximately three times more than the approved rate of the Government. You would        (b)
    (a)  reject the proposal and call for a fresh price.
    (b)  accept the lowest price.
    (c)  refer the matter to the Government and wait.
    (d)  threaten the boat owners about a possible cancellation of the licence.
78.     You are the officer-in-charge of a village administering distribution of vaccine in an isolated epidemic hit village, and you are left with only one vaccine. There is a requirement of that vaccine from the Gram Pradhan and also a poor villager. You are being pressurized by the Gram Pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. You would        (c)
    (a)  initiate the procedure to expedite the next supply without issuing the vaccine to either.
    (b)  arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the distributor of another area.
    (c)  ask both to approach a doctor and get an input about the urgency,
    (d)  arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from the distributor of another area.
79.     You have taken up a project to create night-shelters for homeless people during the winter season. Within a week of establishing the shelters, you have received complaints from the residents of the area about the increase in theft cases with a demand to remove the shelters. You would        (a)
    (a)  ask them to lodge a written complaint in the police station.
    (b)  assure residents of an enquiry into the matter.
    (c)  ask residents to consider the humanitarian effort made.
    (d)  continue with the project and ignore their complaint.
80. You, as an administrative authority, have been approached, by the daughter-in-law of an influential person regarding harassment by her in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. Her parents are not able to approach you because of social pressures. You would
    (a)  call the in-laws for an explanation.    (d)
    (b)  counsel the lady to adjust, given such a circumstance.
    (c)  take action after her parents approach you.
    (d)  ask her to lodge a complaint with the police.